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Exam Code: CFA-Level-III
Exam Questions: 365
CFA Level III Chartered Financial Analyst
Updated: 13 Jul, 2026
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Question 1

Matrix Corporation is a multidivisional company with operations in energy, telecommunications, and shipping.
Matrix sponsors a traditional defined benefit pension plan. Plan assets are valued at $5.5 billion, while recent
declines in interest rates have caused plan liabilities to balloon to $8.3 billion. Average employee age at Matrix
is 57.5, which is considerably higher than the industry average, and the ratio of active to retired lives is 1.1. Joe
Elliot, Matrix's CFO, has made the following statement about the current state of the pension plan.
"Recent declines in interest rates have caused our pension liabilities to grow faster than ever experienced in our
long history, but I am sure these low rates are temporary. I have looked at the charts and estimated the
probability of higher interest rates at more than 90%. Given the expected improvement in interest rate levels,
plan liabilities will again come back into line with our historical position. Our investment policy will therefore be
to invest plan assets in aggressive equity securities. This investment exposure will bring our plan to an overfunded status, which will allow us to use pension income to bolster our profitability."

Options :
Answer: A

Question 2

Pace Insurance is a large, multi-line insurance company that also owns several proprietary mutual funds. The
funds are managed individually, but Pace has an investment committee that oversees all of the funds. This
committee is responsible for evaluating the performance of the funds relative to appropriate benchmarks and
relative to the stated investment objectives of each individual fund. During a recent investment committee
meeting, the poor performance of Pace's equity mutual funds was discussed. In particular, the inability of the
portfolio managers to outperform their benchmarks was highlighted. The net conclusion of the committee was
to review the performance of the manager responsible for each fund and dismiss those managers whose
performance had lagged substantially behind the appropriate benchmark.
The fund with the worst relative performance is the Pace Mid-Cap Fund, which invests in stocks with a
capitalization between S40 billion and $80 billion. A review of the operations of the fund found the following:
• The turnover of the fund was almost double that of other similar style mutual funds.
• The fund's portfolio manager solicited input from her entire staff prior to making any decision to sell an existing
holding.
• The beta of the Pace Mid-Cap Fund's portfolio was 60% higher than the beta of other similar style mutual
funds.
• No stock is considered for purchase in the Mid-Cap Fund unless the portfolio manager has 15 years of
financial information on that company, plus independent research reports from at least three different analysts.
• The portfolio manager refuses to increase her technology sector weighting because of past losses the fund
incurred in the sector.
• The portfolio manager sold all the fund's energy stocks as the price per barrel of oil rose above $80. She
expects oil prices to fall back to the $40 to S50 per barrel range.
A committee member made the following two comments:
Comment 1: "One reason for the poor recent performance of the Mid-Cap Mutual Fund is that the portfolio
lacks recognizable companies. I believe that good companies make good investments."
Comment 2: "The portfolio manager of the Mid-Cap Mutual Fund refuses to acknowledge her mistakes. She
seems to sell stocks that appreciate, but hold stocks that have declined in value."
The supervisor of the Mid-Cap Mutual Fund portfolio manager made the following statements:
Statement 1: "The portfolio manager of the Mid-Cap Mutual Fund has engaged in quarter-end window dressing
to make her portfolio look better to investors. The portfolio manager's action is a behavioral trait known as overreaction."
Statement 2: "Each time the portfolio manager of the Mid-Cap Mutual fund trades a stock, she executes the
trade by buying or selling one-third of the position at a time, with the trades spread over three months. The
portfolio manager's action is a behavioral trait known as anchoring."
Indicate whether Statement 1 and Statement 2 made by the supervisor are correct.

Options :
Answer: C

Question 3

Smiler Industries is a U.S. manufacturer of machine tools and other capital goods. Dat Ng, the CFO of Smiler,
feels strongly that Smiler has a competitive advantage in its risk management practices. With this in mind, Ng
hedges many of the risks associated with Smiler's financial transactions, which include those of a financial
subsidiary. Ng's knowledge of derivatives is extensive, and he often uses them for hedging and in managing
Srniler's considerable investment portfolio.
Smiler has recently completed a sale to Frexa in Italy, and the receivable is denominated in euros. The
receivable is €10 million to be received in 90 days. Srniler's bank provides the following information:
CFA-Level-III-page476-image257
Smiler borrows short-term funds to meet expenses on a temporary basis and typically makes semiannual
interest payments based on 180-day LIBOR plus a spread of 150 bp. Smiler will need to borrow S25 million in
90 days to invest in new equipment. To hedge the interest rate risk on the loan, Ng is considering the purchase
of a call option on 180-day LIBOR with a term to expiration of 90 days, an exercise rate of 4.8%, and a premium
of 0.000943443 of the loan amount. Current 90-day LIBOR is 4.8%.
Smiler also has a diversified portfolio of large cap stocks with a current value of $52,750,000, and Ng wants to
lower the beta of the portfolio from its current level of 1.25 to 0.9 using S&P 500 futures which have a multiplier
of 250. The S&P 500 is currently 1,050, and the futures contract exhibits a beta of 0.98 to the underlying.
Because Ng intends to replace the short-term LIBOR-based loan with long-term financing, he wants to hedge
the risk of a 50 bp change in the market rate of the 20-year bond Smiler will issue in 270 days. The current
spread to Treasuries for Smiler's corporate debt is 2.4%. He will use a 270-day, 20-year Treasury bond futures
contract ($100,000 face value) currently priced at 108.5 for the hedge. The CTD bond for the contract has a
conversion factor of 1.259 and a dollar duration of $6,932.53. The corporate bond, if issued today, would have
an effective duration of 9.94 and has an expected effective duration at issuance of 9.90 based on a constant
spread assumption. A regression of the YTM of 20-year corporate bonds with a rating the same as Smiler's on
the YTM of the CTD bond yields a beta of 1.05.
If Ng purchases the interest rate call, and 180-day LIBOR at option expiration is 5.73%, the annualized effective
rate for the 180-day loan is closest to:

Options :
Answer: A

Question 4

Carl Cramer is a recent hire at Derivatives Specialists Inc. (DSI), a small consulting firm that advises a variety
of institutions on the management of credit risk. Some of DSI's clients are very familiar with risk management
techniques whereas others are not. Cramer has been assigned the task of creating a handbook on credit risk,
its possible impact, and its management. His immediate supervisor, Christine McNally, will assist Cramer in the
creation of the handbook and will review it. Before she took a position at DSI, McNally advised banks and other
institutions on the use of value-at-risk (VAR) as well as credit-at-risk (CAR).
Cramer's first task is to address the basic dimensions of credit risk. He states that the first dimension of credit
risk is the probability of an event that will cause a loss. The second dimension of credit risk is the amount lost,
which is a function of the dollar amount recovered when a loss event occurs. Cramer recalls the considerable
difficulty he faced when transacting with Johnson Associates, a firm which defaulted on a contract with the
Grich Company. Grich forced Johnson Associates into bankruptcy and Johnson Associates was declared in
default of all its agreements. Unfortunately, DSI then had to wait until the bankruptcy court decided on all claims
before it could settle the agreement with Johnson Associates.
McNally mentions that Cramer should include a statement about the time dimension of credit risk. She states
that the two primary time dimensions of credit risk are current and future. Current credit risk relates to the
possibility of default on current obligations, while future credit risk relates to potential default on future
obligations. If a borrower defaults and claims bankruptcy, a creditor can file claims representing the face value
of current obligations and the present value of future obligations. Cramer adds that combining current and
potential credit risk analysis provides the firm's total credit risk exposure and that current credit risk is usually a
reliable predictor of a borrower's potential credit risk.
As DSI has clients with a variety of forward contracts, Cramer then addresses the credit risks associated with
forward agreements. Cramer states that long forward contracts gain in value when the market price of the
underlying increases above the contract price. McNally encourages Cramer to include an example of credit risk
and forward contracts in the handbook. She offers the following:
A forward contract sold by Palmer Securities has six months until the delivery date and a contract price of 50.
The underlying asset has no cash flows or storage costs and is currently priced at 50. In the contract, no funds
were exchanged upfront.
Cramer also describes how a client firm of DSI can control the credit risks in their derivatives transactions. He
writes that firms can make use of netting arrangements, create a special purpose vehicle, require collateral
from counterparties, and require a mark-to-market provision. McNally adds that Cramer should include a
discussion of some newer forms of credit protection in his handbook. McNally thinks credit derivatives
represent an opportunity for DSL She believes that one type of credit derivative that should figure prominently in
their handbook is total return swaps. She asserts that to purchase protection through a total return swap, the
holder of a credit asset will agree to pass the total return on the asset to the protection seller (e.g., a swap
dealer) in exchange for a single, fixed payment representing the discounted present value of expected cash
flows from the asset.
A DSI client, Weaver Trading, has a bond that they are concerned will increase in credit risk. Weaver would like
protection against this event in the form of a payment if the bond's yield spread increases beyond LIBOR plus
3%. Weaver Trading prefers a cash settlement.
Later that week, Cramer and McNally visit a client's headquarters and discuss the potential hedge of a bond
issued by Cuellar Motors. Cuellar manufactures and markets specialty luxury motorcycles. The client is
considering hedging the bond using a credit spread forward, because he is concerned that a downturn in the
economy could result in a default on the Cuellar bond. The client holds $2,000,000 in par of the Cuellar bond
and the bond's coupons are paid annually. The bond's current spread over the U.S. Treasury rate is 2.5%. The
characteristics of the forward contract are shown below.
Information on the Credit Spread Forward
CFA-Level-III-page476-image200
Determine whether the forward contracts sold by Palmer Securities have current and/or potential credit risk.

Options :
Answer: B

Question 5

Garrison Investments is a money management firm focusing on endowment management for small colleges
and universities. Over the past 20 years, the firm has primarily invested in U.S. securities with small allocations
to high quality long-term foreign government bonds. Garrison's largest account, Point University, has a market
value of $800 million and an asset allocation as detailed in Figure 1.
Figure 1: Point University Asset Allocation
CFA-Level-III-page476-image275
*Bond coupon payments are all semiannual. Managers at Garrison are concerned that expectations for a strengthening U.S. dollar relative to the British pound could negatively impact returns to Point University's U.K. bond allocation. Therefore, managers have collected information on swap and exchange rates. Currently, the swap rates in the United States and the United Kingdom are 4.9% and 5.3%, respectively. The spot exchange rate is 0.45 GBP/USD. The U.K. bonds are currently trading at face value. Garrison recently convinced the board of trustees at Point University that the endowment should allocate a portion of the portfolio into international equities, specifically European equities. The board has agreed to the plan but wants the allocation to international equities to be a short-term tactical move. Managers at Garrison have put together the following proposal for the reallocation: To minimize trading costs while gaining exposure to international equities, the portfolio can use futures contracts on the domestic 12-month mid-cap equity index and on the 12-month European equity index. This strategy will temporarily exchange $80 million of U.S. mid-cap exposure for European equity index exposure. Relevant data on the futures contracts are provided in Figure 2. Figure 2: Mid-cap index and European Index Futures Data
CFA-Level-III-page476-image274
Three months after proposing the international diversification plan, Garrison was able to persuade Point
University to make a direct short-term investment of $2 million in Haikuza Incorporated (HI), a Japanese
electronics firm. HI exports its products primarily to the United States and Europe, selling only 30% of its
production in Japan. In order to control the costs of its production inputs, HI uses currency futures to mitigate
exchange rate fluctuations associated with contractual gold purchases from Australia. In its current contract, HI
has one remaining purchase of Australian gold that will occur in nine months. The company has hedged the
purchase with a long 12-month futures contract on the Australian dollar (AUD).
Managers at Garrison are expecting to sell the HI position in one year, but have become nervous about the
impact of an expected depreciation in the value of the Yen relative to the U.S. dollar. Thus, they have decided
to use a currency futures hedge. Analysts at Garrison have estimated that the covariance between the local
currency returns on HI and changes in the USD/Yen spot rate is -0.184 and that the variance of changes in the
USD/Yen spot rate is 0.92.
Which of the following best describes the minimum variance hedge ratio for Garrison's currency futures hedge
on the Haikuza investment?

Options :
Answer: A

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